Shouldn't routers running OSPF avertise routes to networks that are directly connected regardless of whether or not the interface on that network is participating in the OSPF process?

To clarify, lets say I have RouterA with eth 0 with address 192.168.1.1/24 connected to a lan and interface serial 0 with address 172.16.1.1 connected to RouterB. Both RouterA and RouterB are running OSPF. On the first router, I'd enter:

router ospf 1
network 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

This would start the OSPF process on interface serial 0 in area 0. Now, since 192.168.1.0 is a directly connected network, shouldn't RouterA advertise a route to it even though interface eth 0 isn't participating in the OSPF process? I shouldn't have to enter network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 for network 192.168.1.0 to be advertised by RouterA should I? Because in my lab, I do...

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you can either do

1. redistribute connected or
2. add a network statement

ciao

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That worked nicely. Thanks.

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you are welcome

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