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Home > Archive > alt.certification.cisco > June 2002 > One OSPF area in a network, Do I have to use 0
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One OSPF area in a network, Do I have to use 0
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| Jason Thomas 2002-06-24, 6:40 pm |
| Quick question,
Cisco ACRC (yes, older book I know) states I can use any area number for a
network with one area. I seem to remember that every OSPF network has to
have area 0.
Can anyone clarify.
Thanks,
Jason
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| Robert Smales 2002-06-24, 6:40 pm |
| Jason Thomas wrote:
> Quick question,
>
> Cisco ACRC (yes, older book I know) states I can use any area number for
> a
> network with one area. I seem to remember that every OSPF network has to
> have area 0.
>
> Can anyone clarify.
I've seen the same thing, so I knocked up a little 3 router network in my
lab, configured all interfaces to be in area 51 and they were quite happy.
If you think about it, a router in a stub network which isn't the ABR will
have no awareness of other areas but will quite happily advertise and
receive routes from other routers with its own area ID.
Robert
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